MA in Economics, Tribhuvan University, Entrance Exam - 2024
1. Which of the following is NOT a
feature of a mixed economy?
a) Government Intervention b) Free Market
c) Private Property d) Complete absence of market
2. Which tax system is based on the
principle of equity?
a) Progressive tax system b)
Regressive tax system
c) Proportional tax system d) Indirect Tax system
3. What is the major source of
government revenue in Nepal?
a) Direct Tax b) Indirect taxes
c) Grants d) Borrowing
4. Which is an example of a capital
gains tax in Nepal?
a) Tax on vehicle ownership b) Tax on profit from selling property
c) Tax on consumption goods d) Tax on import
5. What is the main objective of a
government budget?
a) Reducing taxes b) Managing public
expenditure and revenue
c) Increasing foreign reserves d) Privatizing public services
6. What does the concept of
"marginal utility" measure?
a) Total satisfaction b) Additional satisfaction from
one more unit
c) Difference in costs d) Cost per
7. What is the current per capita income
of Nepalese people (approx.)?
a) USD 1350 per person per year b)
USD 1430 per person per year
c) USD 1456 per person per year d)
USD 1600 per person per year
8. Who introduced the concept of
"invisible hand"?
a) John Maynard Keynes b) Adam Smith
c) David Marshall d) Alfred Marshall
9. Which of the following measures
economic inequality?
a) Consumer Price Index b) Gini Coefficient
c) GDP per capita d) Purchasing Power
Parity
10. What is the main goal of economic
development?
a) Higher popular growth b) Increased GDP
c) Improves standard of living d) greater Trade balance
11. Which of the following is a
normative economic statement?
a) Nepal's inflation rate is 6%. b) Government should reduce
unemployment.
c) Exports increased by 5% last year d) The economy is in recession.
12. What does "opportunity
cost" refer to?
a) Cost of producing goods b) Money spent on production
c) The next best alternative forgone
d) The profit from an investment
13. Which curve depicts income
inequality graphically?
a) Laffer Curve b) Lorenz Curve
c) Engel Curve d) Kuznets Curve
14. What kind of good has a negative
income elasticity of demand?
a) Normal goods b) Inferior goods
c) Luxury goods d) Substitute goods
15. What is the primary focus of
microeconomics?
a) National output b) Firm-level decisions
c) Exchange rates d) Aggregate demand
16. Which economic concept relates to
"guns versus butter"?
a) Trade-off decisions b) Perfect competition
c) Market equilibrium d) Economic surplus
17. What does a vertical supply curve indicate?
a) High elasticity of supply b) Low elasticity of supply
c) Perfectly inelastic supply
d) Infinite elasticity of
supply
18. If nominal GDP rises faster than
real GDP, this indicates:
a) Increased unemployment b) Inflation
c) Deflation d)
Economic growth
19. Price elasticity of demand is
measured as the:
a) Ratio of percentage change in price to quantity
demanded
b) Ratio of percentage change in
quantity demanded to price
c) Ratio of percentage change in quantity demanded
to percentage change in price
d) Ratio of percentage change in price to percentage
change in quantity demanded
20. What is the shape of the total cost
curve in the short run?
a) Downward sloping b) U-shaped
c) Upward sloping d) Horizontal
21. What type of market structure has
only one buyer?
a) Monopsony b) Oligopoly
c) Perfect Competition d) Monopolistic Competition
22. What is the slope of the demand
curve of a firm in a perfectly competitive market?
a) Downward sloping b) Horizontal
c) Vertical d) Upward
sloping
23. Which of the following when one
party has more information than another?
a) Public goods b) Asymmetric
information
c) Externalities d) Market power
24. The profit-maximizing condition for
a firm is:
a) AR=AC b) MC=MR c) TC=TR d) MR=AR
25. Indifference curves for perfect
complements are:
a) Straight lines b) Convex to the origin
c) L-shaped d) Downward slopping
26. Marginal cost intersects the average
cost at:
a) Falling part b) minimum point
c) rising part d) none of them
27. What type of goods have a positive
cross-price elasticity?
a) Complements b) Substitutes
c) Inferior goods d) Normal goods
28. Which market structure features
collusion?
a) Oligopoly b) Monopolistic competition
c) Monopoly d) Perfect competition
29. What is producer surplus?
a) Difference between revenue and cost
b) Difference between willingness to
sell and price received
c) Difference between consumer's pay and producer's
receipt receipt
d) Difference between producer's expectation and
actual
30. Which of the following is true under
the expenditure approach of GDP in close economy?
a) C+1
b) C+I+G
c) C+I+G+(X-M) d) C+I+S+T
31. The Phillips Curve shows the
relationship between:
a) Inflation and umemployment
b) GDP and investment
c) Taxes and government spending d) Saving and interest rates
32. What happens to real GDP during a
recession?
a) It increases b) It decreases
c) It remains constant d) It fluctuations randomly
33. Which of the following is an example
of expansionary fiscal policy?
a) Increasing taxes b) Reducing government spending
c) Reducing taxes
d) Selling government bonds
34. What is the natural rate of
unemployment?
a) Zero unemployment
b) Unemployment when the economy is at
full employment
c) Cyclical unemployment only
d) Structural unemployment only
35. The Keyynesian Cross model is used
to analyze:
a) Monetary policy effectiveness b) Aggregate demand and output
equilibriuim
c) Supply-side economics d) Trade balance
36. What is "crowding out" in
fiscal policy?
a) Increase in government borrowing
reducing private investment
b) Reduction in taxes causing inflation
c) Increase in exports reducing imports
d) Government spending increasing private spending
37. What is measured by the Consumer
Price Index (CPI)?
a) Changes in the cost of a consumption
basket of goods and services
b) Total production in the economy
c) Income inequality
d) Unemployment rates
38. Which policy tool is used to control
inflation?
a) Re-purchase Agreement (Repo)
b) Decrease in interest rate
c) Reverse repo d)
Increase in money supply
39. What is stagflation?
a) Low inflation and high growth
b) High inflation and low unemployment
c) High inflation and high unemployment
d) Low inflation and low unemployment
40. What shifts the aggregate supply
curve to the right?
a) Increase in raw material costs b) Technological advancements
c) Increase in tax rates d) Wage hikes
41. In the IS-LM model, what does the IS
curve represent?
a) Equilibrium in the goods market b) Equilibrium in the money market
c) Balance of trade d) Full
employment output
42. Which of the following measures
central tendency?
a) Variance b)
Standard deviation c) Median d) Interquartile range
43. The sum of all probabilities for a
probability distribution is:
a) 0
b) 1 c)
Infinity d) Depends on
the data
44. In a normal distribution,
approximately what percentage of data fall within one standard deviation from
the mean?
a) 50% b) 68%
c) 95% d) 99.7%
45. Which of the following sampling
methods is random?
a) Convenience sampling b) Snowball sampling
c) Stratified sampling d) Purposive sampling
46. What does the p-value represent in
hypothesis testing?
a) Probability of the null hypothesis being true
b) Probability of observing the data
given the null hypothesis is true
c) Probability of the alternative hypothesis being
true
d) Margin or error
47. What is the variance of a data set
with values 2, 4, 6, 8?
a) 4
b) 5 c)
6 d) 8
48. Which graphical tool is used to show
the relationship between two variables?
a) Bar chart b) Histogram
c) Scatter plot d) Pie chart
49. What does a high standard deviation
indicate?
a) Data points are close to the mean
b) Data points are widely spread from
the mean
c) The data has a small range
d) Data is normally distributed
50. Which of the following is NOT a
measure of dispersion?
a) Range b) Standard
deviation
c) Median d) Interquartile
range
Thank You!!!
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